I have a question about the REM test for the pros on this forum, and also for regular members on this forum who had the REM test done as part of their fitting:
For the regular forum members: When your REM tests was done, was the result significantly off from the target gain enough that would require your provider to make adjustment to match the measured gain to the target?
For providers: What is the percentage of REM test you’ve done where you’ve found significant enough deviation from the target gain that you’ve had to make adjustment to match the hearing aids’ gain to target.
The reason for my question, what started making me curious, is because my brother recently bought a KS8 from Costco and I asked him if they did the REM test for him. He said "Yeah, they did do that for me, but the guy didn’t make any adjustment or remeasurement. It was more like going through the motion to say that they did it, or that it was perfect the first time around."
In my last fitting a year and a half ago, I didn’t know what REM was at the time and it wasn’t done on me. Six months after that, I learned about REM online and on a return visit, I asked my audi why she didn’t do REM on me. She said that she’s found REM results to almost always show that modern hearing aids tend to match the target gain fairly well, so she stopped doing it and now will only do it as a sanity check if the patient seems to have problems with their hearing aids.
I know that in theory it should be done, and it is also good practice to do it, even if more often than not, it confirms and shows good result. So I don’t want to debate here whether REM should be done or not. I agree that it SHOULD be done, period. And next time I have a new fitting for a new hearing aid, I’ll insist on having REM done for me.
But what got me curious is how valid that excuse is, that "I don’t do REM because it almost always shows good result, so I think it’s a waste of time and I only do it on patients who seem to have troubles with their hearing aids."