Hi, can I just ask a simple question? Does the effectiveness of rem depend on the accuracy of the audiogram?

It does. The goal of REM is to assure that the prescription based off the audiogram is delivered to the eardrums. If the audiogram isn’t accurate then REM is assuring the wrong sound levels are delivered.

I think the assumption is that audiograms are not extremely accurate but good enough. Take it three times and you may have three different sets of numbers. But the general view of the loss should be the same more or less.

WH

Thanks for your reply WH, It seems logical. I’ve had some unexpected results in the past. Does an incurate audiogram result in a different sound experience or a lack of audibility at certain frequencies?

It really depends on how the audiogram is off. If it reads worse hearing than is actually the case for a frequency, then that range will have louder than necessary treatment. Lowering the volume by the patient lowers it all, so reacting to a loud noise where you don’t need as much amplification as was prescribed lowers all the rest where you do need it, making speech understanding harder.

If the it reads better hearing than actual, then that range will have less amplification than needed. It will depend on the frequency this happens to predict what parts of speech are hit.

WH

Thanks. That all sounds so logical.

For “which parts of speech” look for the speech banana diagram. There are a bunch out there.

WH

Thanks WH, extra characters for forum.

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