My father recently showed me his audiogram (I attached the file) and he has a 2khz dip, it goes back up at 4khz and drops down again at 8khz (although not as far as the 2khz dip). This doesn’t seem to match either age-related hearing loss or noise-induced hearing loss.
Anyone have any ideas about what type of hearing loss it does match? I even checked to see if any of his medications were ototoxic, but they do not seem to be…and I don’t know if you would see this type of loss with ototoxicity anyway.